ARE THE GOSPELS AS CLEAR AS WE THINK THAT JESUS HAD NO HUMAN FATHER?
Christianity assumes that Jesus Christ had no human father - he only had a mother. The language of conceived by the Holy Spirit in the creeds is supposed to be a poetic way of saying God was not his literal father but filled in for the absence of a male agent.
The gospels do not define father or mother so that is a problem. If a man married a woman and she got pregnant it was assumed that he was linked to the child. There was no way of considering the biology.
MATTHEW DID NOT TEACH MIRACLE CONCEPTION
The Gospel of Matthew seems to say that Jesus had no father but the Holy Spirit
and was born of a virgin.
It is clear that Joseph was not the father.
But this shows no idea of what conception means - a male gamete has to be provided. Some say Matthew knew there was a connection between seed and conception. So did the Holy Spirit create the sperm? If no sperm was involved then this was not a conception.
Mary could have been raped or molested and this could coincide with the Holy Spirit sending a sperm. Would the Holy Spirit possessing the father count as conception by the Holy Spirit?
I prefer the notion that the conception was considered odd for she was a virgin but that does not exclude a human father. A sperm getting to her during molestation would be seen as very strange.
There is no blunt affirmation that we are talking a miracle here. What
if it is paranormal or just an extremely odd event? Unexplained is not the
same as supernatural.
LUKE DID NOT TEACH VIRGIN BIRTH
The Gospel of Luke mentions neither the virginal conception nor the virgin
birth. Even if it mentions or indicates a Virgin conception it still doesn't say
if Mary will be a Virgin when she gives birth. Perhaps she conceived as a Virgin
and had sex during pregnancy. This indicates the observation of modern
theologians that Luke cares mostly about showing Jesus came from God and was
sent by him. He does not care how the conception happened - it's not important.
Christians like to use the Luke story as evidence that Mary gave consent to
get pregnant. But would a girl in her day and her age really understand enough
to be able to give valid and informed consent? The Luke story is cosmetic.
Mary makes her choice during a short conversation. That is not consent.
It is manipulation.
Here's the Luke story.
The angel Gabriel tells the Virgin Mary that she will have a son.
She asks how this can happen when she is a virgin. She seems to think he meant
she would get pregnant there and then and then he says that God will give her a
baby reminding her that it is a future thing. We know that this is only an
assumption of hers because the angel never said that she would get pregnant
while they were talking.
Mary meant that she had no husband, legal sexual partner. The angel tells her
that God WILL descend upon her help her to conceive his son. The will shows that
the angel is correcting her for thinking that she was to have a conception there
and then. This could mean will Mary have a baby without a man. It could mean she
will get a man to father her son. It could mean she will conceive by sperm
without loss of her virginity which is certainly possible.
The angel replies that God will descend upon her which is why her baby will be
the Son of God.
The child will be the Son of God because of the presence of the Holy Spirit in
Mary which makes the child a servant of God. But the Son of God could have been
meant in the Jewish sense of a man being extra-close to God as evidenced by Luke
20:36. Mary asked how she could conceive without a man after the angel told her
the baby would be the son of the Most High God. She knew the angel meant Son of
God as in exceptionally holy prophet.
Then Gabriel tells her that her cousin Elizabeth has conceived. Some
translations say conceived also which would imply that Mary had just conceived
there and then.
The NAB rejects this word also. It appears in the Revised Standard Version and
in the Amplified Bible. If it should be there then Mary was pregnant already.
Luke never says the angel was exactly right in everything so he could have been
mistaken when he said that Mary will conceive. The angel was sent to announce
who the baby would be and about Elizabeth’s pregnancy. Also can mean: “conceived
like you will.” This interpretation implies that Mary will conceive with a man
like Elizabeth had done.
Also does not mean she conceived there and then because the angel uses the
future tense for her conceiving and the also is said before she consents to
become pregnant.
Also, conceived may have meant the seed starting off the process that makes a
person or conceived could mean when the foetus becomes a person for at that
point the person exists. Mary could have been pregnant before the angel came but
not carrying a person yet and the angel is referring to the beginning of
personhood when he tells her she will conceive. The ancients did not know what
conception was and so used the word both for the origin of the body and/or the
origin of the person. The Jews did not consider an early embryo to be a person
as is obvious from Exodus 21 which does not prescribe a severe penalty for
causing a miscarriage.
The angel tells Mary that Elizabeth despite being barren in her old age has
conceived because nothing is impossible with God. The angel is saying that
conception is down to God. But it does not exclude Elizabeth and her husband
having had sex resulting in conception. Where the angel is unclear about Mary
having a miracle conception, the angel is explicit that Elizabeth had one.
Mary agrees to the whole thing then.
Catholics note this: her consent is not asked for though she gives it and it
could be that it was not up to her or the pregnancy had already started. Yet
Catholics have the cheek to say that Mary is co-redeemer and co-mediatrix with
God for her consent gave us our Saviour. This is nonsense. God gives many women
babies without their consent. Mary could have got pregnant whether she wanted it
or not. Given God's record, she would have been made pregnant without her
consent. If Mary's consent was so important then God must have regarded her like
some kind of goddess or equal. Catholicism has always tended to put Mary above
God.
Luke does not say when Mary became pregnant. Elizabeth seems to say she was
pregnant when she arrived at her house. The spirit-filled Elizabeth blesses the
fruit of Mary’s womb. She might have foreseen a pregnancy and used the present
tense because she was seeing it. And you can say to a virgin, “Blessed is your
baby”, when you know she will have one when she will get married. Changing the
tenses was in the prophetic tradition. Mary might have told her about Gabriel
first.
Christians claim that Luke implied the miraculous virginal conception when he
said that Mary was unmarried and a virgin (1:27) for that was an unnecessary
emphasis for all knew that unmarried women were virgins. But perhaps he was
answering or afraid of slanders against Mary or just giving details, in
accidental emphasis, like some historians do? It is even said that Luke 2:5
implies that Mary was pregnant before the wedding to Joseph which it does not.
All it says is that Joseph took his pregnant wife to be enrolled. What
imaginations the Christians have! It is nonsense to say that if it implies
anything that it must be the virginal conception for it couldn’t mean that
Joseph made Mary pregnant before they wed. The gospels never suggest that Mary
and Joseph were angels of chastity or that the former interpretation is right.
It seems Mary and Joseph were married not just betrothed when they went to
Bethlehem for being engaged and travelling around for miles and days while being
heavily pregnant would have been a source of scandal especially when Mary would
have been little more than a child.
Later, Luke makes Mary say that Joseph was the father of Jesus (2:48). And Luke
says that Jesus was the supposed son of Joseph (Luke 3:23). Luke is not totally
convinced that Jesus was Joseph’s son though he thinks that he was. Many say
that the genealogy he gives for Jesus is Josephs. If that is true then he is
sure enough however to give Jesus’ genealogy through Joseph.
The startling opposition to female adultery in the Bible is partly down to how
it breaks family unity. The woman could have another man's child.
Mary in Luke, if she conceived without Joseph who Luke says was her espoused
(Luke 1:27) was no better than an adulteress when she got pregnant without his
consent. And believers say banning adultery is about family values!
Take Luke 1 to be promising a Virgin conception. Then the statements that the
conception will happen because the Holy Spirit will descend and the power of the
Most High will cover her with its shadow resulting in the child being holy imply
that the baby is sacred for it wasn't created through sex.
Note too that though the Angel was sent by God that does not mean what the angel
said was infallible or correct. Visionaries report at times difficulty in seeing
and hearing and getting the message from the entities they see. Mary was very
unclear to St Bernadette at Lourdes. Luke wrote that when the angel appeared and
said to Mary, "Rejoice O Highly Favoured for the Lord is with you" she was
deeply disturbed by these words and didn't understand what this greeting could
mean. She wasn't at all confident about her vision - note that this doesn't
amount to her being unconfident about the angel but it may. She certainly did
not think she was exceptionally favoured by God or had been sinless. And Jesus
brought her nothing but suffering. The angel made a mistake. The story does
nothing to justify belief in the virginal conception of Jesus Christ.
CONCLUSION
The virgin conception thing speaks of a mystery but not necessarily a
miracle. Conceived by the Holy Spirit seems to just mean "unexplained."
That could simply be down to information lacking.